On Mon, Mar 14, 2016 at 09:42:37AM +0100, coderman wrote: > property of prime numbers â?? those numbers that are divisible only by 1 > and themselves. .... Isn't $1$ counterexample to this definition? Are there links to the papers? And what is the difference with Chebyshev's bias (look it up on wikipedia) which is modulo 4, i.e. base 4?